What's the first wrong statement in the proof below that $ \triangle CEB \cong \triangle CAB$ $ \; ?$ $ \overline{BC} $ is parallel to $ \overline{DF} $. This diagram is not drawn to scale. $A$ $B$ $C$ $D$ $E$ $F$ Givens $ \angle CFE \cong \angle ABC$ $, \ $ $ \overline{CF} \cong \overline{BC}$ $, \ $ $ \angle ECF \cong \angle ACB$ $, \ $ $ \angle BED \cong \angle BAC$ $, \ $ $ \angle DBE \cong \angle ABC$ $, \ $ and $\ $ $ \overline{BD} \cong \overline{BC}$ Proof $ \triangle CAB \cong \triangle DEB$ because AAS $ \overline{AB} \cong \overline{BE}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle CAB \cong \triangle CEF$ because ASA $ \overline{AC} \cong \overline{CE}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle CAB \cong \triangle CEB$ because SSS
Solution: Try going through the proof yourself: write down the givens, and then see if they justify the next step for the reason given. Then do the same thing for the next step, and the next, until you run into something that you can't justify, or you finish the proof. There is no wrong statement in this proof.